I know a fellow who is estranged from his wife, during the course of their estrangement an order was put against him forbidding contact.
A few days ago he got a text from her, being a wise fellow he instantly called the court in her state and found out several things.
1. He has in fact been divorced for two months without his knowledge and for a mere $8 he can get a copy of the divorce decree.
2. He then asked about the text message and was told that she was allowed to text him to whatever extent she wants. If however he answers he is in violation.
Am I the only person who sees an inconsistency in this?
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